CPCE Assessment and Testing Practice Questions (15 Free)
Published 2026-10-21 · Facts and text checked 2026-10-16 · Questions from our CPCE study guide · Reviewed by Hana N., Quality Reviewer
These free CPCE practice questions cover Assessment and Testing, part of 7. Assessment and Testing on the exam. Reliability, validity, test types, scores and the ethical use of assessment. Each question comes from a practice test in our CPCE study guide and shows the correct answer with an explanation. The full exam has 160 questions (136 scored, 24 unscored).
Reliability, validity, test types, scores and the ethical use of assessment. On the exam this is part of 7. Assessment and Testing. Open each answer to read the explanation.
Question 1Easy
A client consistently agrees with statements like 'I always enjoy meeting new people' regardless of content. This pattern is best described as:
- A.Acquiescence bias
- B.Malingering
- C.Extreme responding
- D.Social desirability bias
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Acquiescence bias
Acquiescence bias, or yea-saying, is the tendency to agree with statements irrespective of their content. Social desirability bias involves responding in a way that is viewed favorably by others, which is distinct from uniform agreement.
From practice test 4 of our CPCE study guide (question 83). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 2Hard
A researcher wants to measure daily mood fluctuations in adolescents by asking them to report their mood several times per day via a smartphone app for one week, rather than relying on a single retrospective questionnaire. This method is called:
- A.daily diary method
- B.ecological momentary assessment (EMA)
- C.experience sampling method (ESM)
- D.single-point measurement
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. ecological momentary assessment (EMA)
While ESM and daily diary are similar, EMA is the broader term that encompasses real-time data capture in natural settings, and the description matches EMA's repeated sampling. Single-point measurement is the opposite approach. EMA reduces recall bias and captures context-specific variation.
From practice test 7 of our CPCE study guide (question 67). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 3Easy
The most recent edition of the MMPI, published in 2020, contains how many true-false items?
- A.335
- B.338
- C.370
- D.567
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. 335
The MMPI-3, published in 2020, has 335 true-false items. The MMPI-2-RF had 338, and the original MMPI-2 had 567.
From practice test 2 of our CPCE study guide (question 43). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 4Medium
What is the primary purpose of non-verbal intelligence tests such as the CTONI-2?
- A.To assess crystallized knowledge through vocabulary
- B.To screen for autism spectrum disorders
- C.To evaluate mathematical ability without reading
- D.To measure fluid reasoning while minimizing language demands
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. To measure fluid reasoning while minimizing language demands
Non-verbal intelligence tests are designed to assess cognitive abilities, especially fluid reasoning, without requiring verbal responses or language comprehension. This makes them useful for individuals with language impairments or non-native speakers. They are not specific to autism screening.
From practice test 4 of our CPCE study guide (question 130). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 5Easy
A counselor administers the NEO-PI-3 to a client and obtains high scores on Openness, Conscientiousness, and Extraversion. The NEO-PI-3 is designed to measure:
- A.Psychopathological traits.
- B.The Five-Factor Model of personality.
- C.Career interests based on Holland's theory.
- D.Emotional intelligence.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. The Five-Factor Model of personality.
The NEO-PI-3 operationalizes the Five-Factor Model (Openness, Conscientiousness, Extraversion, Agreeableness, Neuroticism). It does not measure psychopathology (A), career interests (C), or emotional intelligence (D).
From practice test 5 of our CPCE study guide (question 1). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 6Hard
A screening test for depression has a sensitivity of 0.90 and a specificity of 0.80. If the base rate of depression in the population is 10%, what is the predictive value of a positive test?
- A.33%
- B.50%
- C.80%
- D.90%
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. 33%
Using Bayes' theorem: Positive predictive value = (sensitivity · prevalence) / (sensitivity · prevalence + (1-specificity) · (1-prevalence)) = (0.9 · 0.1)/(0.9 · 0.1 + 0.2 · 0.9) = 0.09/(0.09+0.18)=0.09/0.27=0.333=33%. Thus only 33% of positive results are true positives.
From practice test 4 of our CPCE study guide (question 19). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 7Medium
A student's WAIS-IV scores are: Verbal Comprehension Index = 125, Perceptual Reasoning Index = 82, Working Memory = 90, Processing Speed = 85. This pattern is most consistent with:
- A.Nonverbal learning disorder
- B.Intellectual disability
- C.Giftedness
- D.Specific language impairment
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Nonverbal learning disorder
The large discrepancy between high verbal and low perceptual reasoning, along with lower processing speed, is a classic pattern associated with nonverbal learning disorder. Intellectual disability requires lower overall scores, and giftedness would not include such a deficit.
From practice test 3 of our CPCE study guide (question 57). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 8Easy
A counselor needs a quick estimate of a client's verbal and nonverbal cognitive ability during an intake session with limited time. Which of the following instruments is most appropriate for this purpose?
- A.WAIS-IV
- B.Kaufman Brief Intelligence Test, Second Edition (KBIT-2)
- C.Woodcock-Johnson IV Tests of Cognitive Abilities
- D.Stanford-Binet 5
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Kaufman Brief Intelligence Test, Second Edition (KBIT-2)
The KBIT-2 is a brief screening measure of verbal and nonverbal intelligence, designed for quick administration (15-20 minutes). The other instruments are comprehensive batteries requiring longer administration times.
From practice test 8 of our CPCE study guide (question 69). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 9Easy
A test developer administers a depression inventory to the same group of individuals on two occasions one week apart. The correlation between the two sets of scores is 0.75. For high-stakes decisions, the commonly accepted minimum reliability coefficient is 0.80. Which statement accurately describes this coefficient?
- A.It is exactly at the minimum.
- B.It is insufficient to establish test-retest reliability.
- C.It is above the acceptable threshold.
- D.It is below the acceptable threshold.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. It is below the acceptable threshold.
The commonly accepted minimum reliability coefficient for high-stakes decisions is 0.80. A coefficient of 0.75 is below this threshold, indicating inadequate stability for such decisions. The coefficient does establish test-retest reliability, but it is not high enough for high-stakes use.
From practice test 2 of our CPCE study guide (question 23). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 10Easy
Social desirability bias in self-report measures refers to:
- A.The tendency to answer randomly
- B.The tendency to present oneself in a favorable light
- C.The tendency to agree with all statements
- D.The tendency to choose extreme responses
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. The tendency to present oneself in a favorable light
Social desirability bias is the inclination to respond in a way that is seen as socially acceptable or desirable, rather than truthfully. This contrasts with acquiescence (agreeing) or extreme responding.
From practice test 4 of our CPCE study guide (question 27). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 11Hard
A clinical psychologist is choosing between two tests for predicting treatment dropout. Test A predicts dropout with a validity coefficient of 0.40. Test B predicts dropout with a coefficient of 0.45 but costs four times as much. When added to a clinical interview, Test B raises the multiple correlation from 0.50 to 0.53, while Test A raises it to 0.52. Which test provides greater incremental validity?
- A.Test B, because it shows a larger increase in the multiple correlation
- B.Test A, because it is more cost-effective
- C.Test B, because it has a higher zero-order validity
- D.Incremental validity cannot be determined from the information given
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Test B, because it shows a larger increase in the multiple correlation
Incremental validity refers to the degree to which a test improves prediction beyond existing measures. Here, adding Test B increases the multiple R from 0.50 to 0.53 (a gain of 0.03), while Test A increases it to 0.52 (a gain of 0.02). Test B thus has greater incremental validity, independent of cost.
From practice test 6 of our CPCE study guide (question 133). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 12Medium
Under the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), a testing agency must provide appropriate accommodations to candidates with documented disabilities unless doing so would:
- A.Fundamentally alter the nature of the test or impose an undue burden
- B.Increase the cost of test development by more than 10%
- C.Lower the pass rate for non-disabled test takers
- D.Require additional time for test administration
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Fundamentally alter the nature of the test or impose an undue burden
The ADA mandates that accommodations be provided unless they fundamentally change the test construct or cause significant difficulty or expense. Additional time or lower pass rates are not valid reasons to deny accommodations.
From practice test 6 of our CPCE study guide (question 6). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 13Easy
The Kuder Occupational Interest Survey is characterized by which of the following item formats?
- A.True-false items
- B.Forced-choice triads
- C.Likert scale items
- D.Sentence completion items
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Forced-choice triads
The Kuder inventory uses forced-choice triads, where respondents choose among three activities, to minimize social desirability bias. Likert scales are used in the Strong, true-false in the MMPI, and sentence completion in projective tests.
From practice test 5 of our CPCE study guide (question 91). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 14Medium
A test using norms from 20 years ago is administered today. Compared to current norms, what is the likely effect on IQ scores?
- A.Scores will be lower because raw scores have decreased.
- B.Scores will be unaffected if the test is well-standardized.
- C.Scores will be higher because old norms overestimate current ability.
- D.Scores will be lower due to the Flynn Effect.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Scores will be higher because old norms overestimate current ability.
The Flynn Effect describes a steady rise in raw scores over generations; therefore, old norms assign higher IQ scores for the same raw score compared to updated norms, leading to overestimation.
From practice test 2 of our CPCE study guide (question 51). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 15Medium
A forensic psychologist suspects a defendant is exaggerating psychiatric symptoms to avoid trial. Which response set is most relevant?
- A.Social desirability
- B.Acquiescence
- C.Faking good
- D.Faking bad
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Faking bad
Faking bad, also called malingering, involves exaggerating or feigning symptoms for external gain. Faking good is the opposite, presenting oneself in an overly positive light. The scenario clearly describes exaggerating symptoms.
From practice test 4 of our CPCE study guide (question 110). Original question, not an official exam item.
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