PTCB Practice Test 2026: 50 Free PTCE Questions + Answers
Published 2026-11-03 · Facts and text checked 2026-11-02 · Questions from our PTCB study guide · Reviewed by Hana N., Quality Reviewer
The Pharmacy Technician Certification Exam (PTCE), from PTCB, has 90 multiple-choice questions (80 scored) in 1 hour and 50 minutes, and you pass with a scaled score of 1,400. Below are 50 free questions from our PTCB study guide, each with the correct answer and an explanation.
Answer each one, read why the right answer is right, and see which of the four domains is costing you points. PTCB reports a scaled score, not a percentage, and does not say how many correct answers a score takes. On our questions, aim for 75% or more in every domain before you book. That is our study target, not an official cut score.
| Fact | Value and source |
|---|---|
| Exam body | Pharmacy Technician Certification Board (PTCB)PTCB Guidebook: after the exam · checked 2026-10-10 |
| Number of questions | 90 questions (80 scored, 10 unscored)PTCB Guidebook: after the exam · checked 2026-10-10 |
| Exam time | 1 hour 50 minutes (2 hours with tutorial and survey)PTCB Guidebook: after the exam · checked 2026-10-10 |
| Passing score | Scaled score of 1,400 (scale 1,000-1,600)PTCB: Certified Pharmacy Technician (CPhT) · checked 2026-10-10 |
Want a verdict instead of a practice set? Take the free "Am I ready?" quiz: 25 different questions, your score and the topics to study next.
50 free PTCB practice questions
Question 1Easy
A medication has the suffix "-tidine". Based on this suffix, which drug class is it most likely to belong to?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. H2 receptor antagonist
H2 receptor antagonists, including famotidine and cimetidine, share the suffix "-tidine". PPIs end in "-prazole", beta blockers in "-olol", and calcium channel blockers in "-dipine".
From practice test 3 of our PTCB study guide (question 69). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 2Easy
A prescriber orders 0.5 grain of a medication. How many milligrams is this dose?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. 30 mg
One grain equals 60 mg, so 0.5 grain is 0.5 x 60 = 30 mg. The 60 mg option represents 1 grain, not 0.5 grain.
From practice test 16 of our PTCB study guide (question 44). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 3Easy
A patient calls to refill a Schedule II medication that was filled 25 days ago with a 30-day supply. Which statement is correct?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. A new prescription is required from the prescriber because Schedule II medications cannot be refilled
Schedule II controlled substances cannot be refilled under federal law; a new prescription is required for each fill. The fact that the patient is nearly out of medication does not create a refill right.
From practice test 10 of our PTCB study guide (question 42). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 4Easy
Which property is the reason chemotherapy agents are placed on high-alert medication lists?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. They have a narrow therapeutic index and can cause severe, life-threatening toxicity if the dose is incorrect.
Chemotherapy agents cause severe toxicity in normal tissues at doses near the therapeutic range, so small dosing or preparation errors can be life-threatening. They require special handling and independent double checks, but they are not all intravenous and are not given by physicians exclusively.
From practice test 3 of our PTCB study guide (question 18). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 5Easy
The brand name Glucophage for metformin is best understood as meaning what?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Glucose eater because it helps lower blood glucose
Glucophage combines gluco (glucose) with phage (to eat), indicating the drug's glucose-lowering effect. It does not produce glucose, bind dietary sugar in the mouth, or work as an insulin carrier.
From practice test 12 of our PTCB study guide (question 67). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 6Medium
Which work practice minimizes the risk of contamination in a laminar airflow hood?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Working from the back of the hood toward the front, avoiding reaching across open containers
Working from the back of the hood toward the front ensures that cleaner areas are prepared first and that hands and supplies never pass over an open sterile product. This maintains unidirectional airflow and prevents contamination from the operator's body.
From practice test 3 of our PTCB study guide (question 59). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 7Medium
A patient is taking a Schedule II controlled substance prescribed as a 30-day supply. When the patient calls the pharmacy for a refill, what should the technician explain?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. A new prescription is required because Schedule II medications cannot be refilled
Schedule II prescriptions cannot be refilled, so a new prescription from the prescriber is required for each additional supply. Transferring a Schedule II prescription for a refill is not permitted.
From practice test 13 of our PTCB study guide (question 63). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 8Medium
A Schedule III prescription for codeine was written on January 15. The pharmacy has already filled it three times. On June 1, the patient requests an additional fill. What is the legally correct response?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. The prescription may be refilled twice more, but no fill may occur after July 15
Federal law permits Schedule III, IV, and V prescriptions to be refilled no more than five times within six months from the date written. With three fills already used, only two refills remain, and the prescription expires on July 15.
From practice test 14 of our PTCB study guide (question 80). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 9Medium
During order entry, a technician selects metformin from a drop-down list when the prescription actually reads metoprolol. Later, an order written 'q.i.d.' is entered as 'daily.' At which step of the medication use process did these errors occur?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Transcription
Transcription is the step where the order is entered into the pharmacy computer system, so wrong selections from a drop-down menu and misread frequencies are transcription failures. Prescribing created the original order, while dispensing and administration occur after the order is transcribed.
From practice test 7 of our PTCB study guide (question 78). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 10Medium
A patient with type 2 diabetes tells the technician that she is worried about gaining weight from her new diabetes medication. Which medication is most appropriate to discuss as weight neutral?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Metformin
Metformin is considered weight neutral and may cause modest weight loss, unlike sulfonylureas, which tend to cause weight gain. It is a first-line agent for type 2 diabetes in many patients. This makes it the appropriate medication to discuss for a patient concerned about weight gain.
From practice test 5 of our PTCB study guide (question 79). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 11Medium
An attorney sends a letter to the pharmacy requesting a patient's complete medication history for a personal injury lawsuit. The patient has not provided any authorization. Under HIPAA, the pharmacy may disclose this information if:
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. The patient signs a written authorization permitting the disclosure
Disclosures for purposes other than treatment, payment, or health care operations require the patient's written authorization. A lawsuit request is not a TPO purpose, and the attorney's request or a notarized letter does not substitute for the patient's authorization.
From practice test 6 of our PTCB study guide (question 68). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 12Medium
A brand-name prescription rejects with 'Product/Service Not Covered,' and the plan's formulary lists a generic alternative for the same drug. What is the most appropriate first step?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Contact the prescriber to ask whether the generic is clinically appropriate for this patient.
Product/Service Not Covered commonly means the plan will pay for a generic alternative. The pharmacy should ask the prescriber whether a switch is appropriate; resubmitting an unchanged claim will not change the outcome.
From practice test 9 of our PTCB study guide (question 63). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 13Medium
A patient asks to transfer a Schedule II prescription from your pharmacy to another pharmacy. Under DEA rules, how many times may a Schedule II prescription be transferred?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. It may be transferred only once, and only if it has not already been transferred
A Schedule II prescription may be transferred between pharmacies only once, and the transferring pharmacy must not have previously transferred it. Both pharmacies must record the transfer.
From practice test 11 of our PTCB study guide (question 18). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 14Medium
A provider orders a 500 mL bag of 10% dextrose. The pharmacy has 10% dextrose and 2% dextrose on hand. Why would alligation not be used to prepare this order?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Because the desired strength equals the higher strength, so the 10% solution can be used without mixing.
When the target strength equals one of the available strengths, no mixture is needed; the solution of that strength should be used directly. Alligation is only for targets strictly between the two source strengths.
From practice test 3 of our PTCB study guide (question 65). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 15Medium
At the receipt stage of a new prescription, what is the technician's primary responsibility?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Collect the prescription and confirm it contains the required patient, prescriber, drug, strength, quantity, directions, and date
The receipt stage is for collecting and checking the prescription's required elements, not judging therapy or starting preparation. Entering data and counting are later workflow stages.
From practice test 10 of our PTCB study guide (question 36). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 16Medium
A patient taking lisinopril for hypertension reports a persistent dry cough that began after starting the medication. What is the most appropriate action for the pharmacy technician?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Document the cough and alert the pharmacist; the prescriber may switch the patient to losartan, an ARB.
A dry cough is a characteristic adverse effect of ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril and should be reported to the pharmacist, who can recommend switching to an ARB like losartan, which does not cause this cough. The technician must not recommend cough suppressants, dose adjustments, or independent medication changes.
From practice test 14 of our PTCB study guide (question 29). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 17Medium
Which statement correctly describes the relationship between cephalosporin generations and their antimicrobial spectrum?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Later generations generally have expanded gram-negative coverage while retaining clinically useful gram-positive activity.
Later-generation cephalosporins (e.g., third and fourth generations) have progressively greater gram-negative coverage while retaining substantial gram-positive activity. First-generation cephalosporins are more active against gram-positive organisms and have limited gram-negative coverage, so the other statements are incorrect.
From practice test 13 of our PTCB study guide (question 21). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 18Medium
While processing a new prescription, a technician calls the patient's insurance company to confirm the plan covers the medication. Under the HIPAA Privacy Rule, why is this call allowed without first obtaining the patient's written authorization?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. It is a payment activity that falls within the treatment, payment, or operations exception.
Verifying coverage and processing claims are payment functions under the treatment, payment, or operations exception, so no written authorization is needed. The other choices overstate the exception or incorrectly describe PHI.
From practice test 8 of our PTCB study guide (question 45). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 19Medium
When compounding a hazardous drug, how should a technician wear double gloves with the gown?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Wear the outer glove over the gown cuff and the inner glove under the gown.
For hazardous drugs, the inner glove is worn first, then the gown, then the outer glove is placed over the gown cuff. This prevents hazardous drug particles from contacting the skin or clothing.
From practice test 10 of our PTCB study guide (question 85). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 20Medium
Which drug pair is on the ISMP Look-Alike Sound-Alike (LASA) list and requires special verification because the names look and sound nearly identical?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. TEGretol and Toprol
TEGretol, carbamazepine, and Toprol, metoprolol, are a recognized ISMP Look-Alike Sound-Alike pair because their names look and sound nearly identical. Pharmacy staff must verify the indication and dose before dispensing either drug.
From practice test 14 of our PTCB study guide (question 65). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 21Hard
A 70 kg patient is ordered dopamine at 5 mcg/kg/min. The pharmacy supplies dopamine 400 mg in 250 mL of D5W. What rate in mL/hr should the infusion pump be set to deliver?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. 13.1 mL/hr
The dose is 5 mcg/kg/min times 70 kg, which is 350 mcg/min. The concentration is 400 mg per 250 mL, or 1,600 mcg/mL. Dividing 350 mcg/min by 1,600 mcg/mL gives 0.21875 mL/min, and multiplying by 60 gives 13.125, or 13.1 mL/hr.
From practice test 8 of our PTCB study guide (question 75). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 22Hard
While donning a gown for sterile compounding, the front flap of the gown touches the edge of the counter in the anteroom. What is the correct action and reason?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Remove the gown and don a fresh one, because the front of the gown is the side that faces the compounding area and must not contact noncritical surfaces.
The front of the gown is the part exposed to the compounding area; once it contacts a noncritical surface it is considered contaminated and the gown must be replaced. Wiping, turning, or continuing does not restore the barrier.
From practice test 2 of our PTCB study guide (question 88). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 23Hard
A patient asks how ibuprofen relieves the pain and swelling of a sprained ankle. Which explanation is most accurate?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. It blocks COX enzymes and thereby reduces the production of prostaglandins that cause pain and inflammation
Ibuprofen is an NSAID that inhibits cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes, decreasing prostaglandin synthesis and reducing pain and inflammation. Mast cell stabilization and histamine release describe a different mechanism, not NSAIDs.
From practice test 14 of our PTCB study guide (question 12). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 24Hard
A pharmacy maintains redundant servers so that if one server fails, ePHI remains accessible to authorized staff. This practice primarily supports which element of the CIA triad?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Availability
Redundant systems and disaster recovery plans support availability by ensuring authorized users can access ePHI when needed. Confidentiality limits access, and integrity ensures information has not been altered or destroyed.
From practice test 7 of our PTCB study guide (question 21). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 25Hard
A pharmacy's audit checklist is being revised. Which item is most consistent with collecting useful audit data?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Refrigerator temperature at time of check: _ °F
An audit checklist should record the observed value, such as the actual temperature, rather than a yes or no judgment. Only the written number provides trend data for detecting drift. Asking whether the temperature was in range gives no record of how far off it was.
From practice test 14 of our PTCB study guide (question 49). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 26Easy
Which statement accurately describes the transfer of a Schedule II prescription between pharmacies?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. A Schedule II prescription may be transferred once, and both the transferring and receiving pharmacies must record the transfer
A Schedule II prescription may be transferred only once, and both pharmacies must document the transfer. Multiple transfers and transfers with no record violate DEA requirements, and a total prohibition is incorrect because transfer is permitted once.
From practice test 10 of our PTCB study guide (question 24). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 27Medium
Which combination of garb is required when compounding a hazardous drug?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Double gloves, a disposable low-permeability gown with closed front, and a fit-tested NIOSH-approved mask.
Hazardous drug compounding requires double gloves, a disposable low-permeability gown with a closed front, and a fit-tested NIOSH-approved mask or respirator. A standard surgical mask and single gloves do not provide adequate protection.
From practice test 11 of our PTCB study guide (question 69). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 28Easy
Which security goal of the HIPAA Security Rule is supported by ensuring that authorized users can access electronic protected health information when they need it for their work?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Availability
Availability ensures that authorized users can access ePHI when needed. Confidentiality and integrity serve different goals, and anonymity is not part of the CIA triad.
From practice test 16 of our PTCB study guide (question 19). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 29Hard
A technician converts 0.25 mg to micrograms using the expression 0.25 mg × (1 mg / 1000 mcg). Which statement correctly identifies the problem with this setup?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. The conversion factor is upside down; the correct factor is 1000 mcg / 1 mg.
The factor is inverted, so the milligram unit does not cancel and the result has meaningless units of mg² per mcg.
From practice test 11 of our PTCB study guide (question 51). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 30Medium
A 400 mL IV solution is to infuse over 2 hours using an administration set labeled 15 gtt/mL. What is the drop rate?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. 50 gtt/min
Drops per minute = (400 mL x 15 gtt/mL) / (2 hours x 60 min/hour) = 6,000 / 120 = 50 gtt/min.
From practice test 11 of our PTCB study guide (question 4). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 31Hard
A father presents a prescription for his 16-year-old daughter. The insurance card lists the father as the cardholder with person code 01. The daughter has not used this insurance plan before. The technician enters the claim using person code 01 because that is the code printed on the card. What is the most likely result?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. The claim rejects immediately with "M/I Person Code."
Person code 01 identifies the cardholder, but the patient is a dependent child and should be billed with person code 03. The payer's eligibility system will not match the daughter's date of birth to person code 01, so the claim rejects.
From practice test 13 of our PTCB study guide (question 35). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 32Medium
A new order for amoxicillin 250 mg/5 mL suspension contains the instruction 'instill 5 mL into the right ear twice daily for 7 days.' What should the technician do first?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Ask the pharmacist whether the route is appropriate for this formulation
Amoxicillin oral suspension is formulated for oral administration, not for use in the ear. The pharmacist must determine whether the prescriber intended an otic product or a different route.
From practice test 7 of our PTCB study guide (question 72). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 33Medium
A medication order reads: 'give 25 mg by mouth every 12 hours.' The pharmacy has 50 mg tablets. The technician determines that half a tablet is needed and labels the vial accordingly. Which of the five rights is the technician specifically addressing?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Right dose
The right dose is the correct quantity of medication to be administered. Calculating that half of a 50 mg tablet equals the ordered 25 mg directly addresses the right dose, not the patient, drug, or route.
From practice test 16 of our PTCB study guide (question 2). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 34Hard
When studying losartan, valsartan, and candesartan, a technician groups them as 'sartan' drugs. How does this grouping provide a second retrieval path on the exam?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. If the brand name is remembered but not the generic, the class clue narrows the answer to a drug ending in 'sartan' and the class is angiotensin II receptor blockers
Grouping sartan drugs creates a class-based retrieval cue: remembering the suffix points to both the ARB class and the corresponding generic names, which narrows the choices on a multiple-choice question. ARBs are not interchangeable with ACE inhibitors, and the suffix identifies the class rather than concealing it.
From practice test 13 of our PTCB study guide (question 14). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 35Easy
A technician receives a prescription for amoxicillin. Which suffix in the generic name immediately identifies this medication as a penicillin?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. -cillin
Penicillins are identified by the suffix '-cillin', as in amoxicillin, ampicillin, and penicillin. '-prazole' marks proton pump inhibitors, '-statin' marks HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors, and '-floxacin' marks fluoroquinolones.
From practice test 2 of our PTCB study guide (question 14). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 36Easy
Which set of criteria describes a Schedule II controlled substance?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. High potential for abuse and use that may lead to severe psychological or physical dependence.
Schedule II drugs have a high potential for abuse and may lead to severe psychological or physical dependence. The option stating no accepted medical use describes Schedule I, making it the closest distractor.
From practice test 13 of our PTCB study guide (question 20). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 37Medium
A pharmacy technician is entering the compounding area to prepare a sterile product. According to USP 797, which sequence lists the garbing steps in the correct order?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Shoe covers, head and beard covers, mask, hand hygiene, gown, gloves
USP 797 garbing places hand hygiene after donning shoe covers, head and beard covers, and mask, and before donning the gown and sterile gloves. This sequence prevents transfer of skin particles and microorganisms from the hands to the gown and buffer room.
From practice test 12 of our PTCB study guide (question 25). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 38Medium
When a pharmacy determines that a product it received is an illegitimate product under DSCSA, which of the following must occur?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. The pharmacy must notify the FDA and all immediate trading partners that received the product
DSCSA requires a person who determines a product is illegitimate to notify the Secretary (FDA) and all immediate trading partners that received the product. The other options omit required recipients or add an inappropriate delay.
From practice test 4 of our PTCB study guide (question 38). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 39Hard
The concentration on a vial is 2 mg per mL. The prescriber orders 0.25 mg. After setting up the proportion 2 mg / 1 mL = 0.25 mg / x mL, use cross-multiplication to solve for x.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. 0.125 mL
Cross-multiplication gives 2 times x equals 0.25, so x equals 0.125 mL. The 1.25 mL option is the result of moving the decimal one place in the wrong direction.
From practice test 10 of our PTCB study guide (question 4). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 40Easy
A 1,000 mL bag of lactated Ringer's solution is to be infused over 8 hours using an infusion pump. At what rate should the pump be set?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. 125 mL/hr
Rate equals volume divided by time: 1,000 mL / 8 hours = 125 mL/hr.
From practice test 11 of our PTCB study guide (question 85). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 41Hard
A patient brings a prescription written yesterday. The patient's insurance coverage effective date is today. The claim rejects with 'eligibility at date of service.' What is the correct action?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Tell the patient the coverage begins today and fill the prescription with today's date, because changing the date of service to obtain payment is fraudulent.
The date of service must be the actual dispensing date, which is today. Altering it to a date before coverage begins is fraud, and the patient's coverage is active as of today.
From practice test 9 of our PTCB study guide (question 2). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 42Easy
A patient already takes several medications, and a new prescription has just been entered into the pharmacy computer. Before the medication is dispensed, which pharmacy team member reviews the patient's entire medication list for drug interactions?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. The pharmacist, during final verification
During final verification, the pharmacist reviews the drug, dose, route, frequency, interactions, and the patient's full medication list. Receipt only collects the prescription, and data entry and preparation are technician steps.
From practice test 16 of our PTCB study guide (question 70). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 43Medium
A heparin order calls for 5,000 units subcutaneously. The pharmacy stocks 1,000 units/mL and 10,000 units/mL vials. Which of these preparations would deliver an overdose of 50,000 units?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. 5 mL of the 10,000 units/mL vial
5 mL multiplied by 10,000 units/mL equals 50,000 units, ten times the intended 5,000-unit dose. The 0.5 mL of the 10,000 units/mL vial and the 5 mL of the 1,000 units/mL vial both deliver exactly 5,000 units.
From practice test 3 of our PTCB study guide (question 47). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 44Easy
A pharmacy student is trying to remember that losartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker. Which memory aid for the brand name Cozaar is most helpful?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Cozaar sounds like 'cozy ARB' because it fits the ARB class
The brand name Cozaar is a phonetic play on 'cozy' plus ARB, the abbreviation for angiotensin II receptor blockers. This association directly links the brand to its therapeutic class.
From practice test 13 of our PTCB study guide (question 11). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 45Easy
Which of the following correctly classifies the analgesic subfamilies?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. NSAIDs, acetaminophen, and opioids are the three main analgesic subfamilies.
The three main analgesic subfamilies are NSAIDs, acetaminophen, and opioids. Statins, beta blockers, benzodiazepines, penicillins, cephalosporins, and sulfonamides belong to other therapeutic classes.
From practice test 11 of our PTCB study guide (question 63). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 46Easy
Before transferring expired controlled substances to a reverse distributor, the pharmacy must verify that the reverse distributor:
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Holds a valid DEA registration
A reverse distributor must hold a DEA registration to handle controlled substances for disposal. The pharmacy must verify that registration before transferring the drugs.
From practice test 7 of our PTCB study guide (question 89). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 47Hard
Which medication should be handled with hazardous drug containment procedures?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Cyclosporine, an immunosuppressant
Cyclosporine is an immunosuppressant that meets the NIOSH criteria for hazardous drugs. Antibiotics, antihypertensives, and proton pump inhibitors are not classified as hazardous for sterile compounding containment.
From practice test 3 of our PTCB study guide (question 81). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 48Medium
A pharmacist reads a newly issued FDA Drug Safety Communication. Which statement best describes the purpose of these advisory communications?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. It informs clinicians and the public about a newly identified safety concern and may include recommendations
An FDA Drug Safety Communication alerts clinicians and the public to a newly recognized drug safety risk and typically includes recommendations for use. Advisory communications do not compel a specific pharmacy to act, do not subpoena records, and do not automatically revoke approval.
From practice test 5 of our PTCB study guide (question 5). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 49Easy
How many micrograms are contained in 0.25 mg?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. 250 mcg
0.25 mg multiplied by 1000 mcg/mg equals 250 mcg. The 2500 mcg option corresponds to 2.5 mg.
From practice test 15 of our PTCB study guide (question 16). Original question, not an official exam item.
Question 50Medium
A 500 mL antibiotic infusion is to run over 4 hours. The tubing delivers 15 drops per mL. How many drops per minute should be observed in the drip chamber?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. 31 drops/min
(500 × 15) / 240 = 31.25, which rounds to 31 drops/min. The 21 drops/min result would come from a 10 drop per mL set.
From practice test 6 of our PTCB study guide (question 73). Original question, not an official exam item.
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Quick answers
How many questions are on the PTCB exam?
The PTCE has 90 multiple-choice questions: 80 are scored and 10 are unscored questions placed randomly and not identified (PTCB).
How long is the PTCB exam?
1 hour and 50 minutes of testing, inside a 2-hour appointment that also includes a 5-minute tutorial and a 5-minute post-exam survey (PTCB).
What is the passing score for the PTCE?
A scaled score of 1,400 on a scale from 1,000 to 1,600 (PTCB). It is a scaled score, not a percentage of correct answers.
How much does the PTCB exam cost?
The fee to apply for CPhT certification and take the PTCE is $129 (PTCB, checked October 2026).
When do I get my PTCB results?
An unofficial result appears on screen right after the post-exam survey; the official score report is posted to your PTCB account within three weeks.
What is on the PTCE?
Four domains: Medications (35%), Federal Requirements (18.75%), Patient Safety and Quality Assurance (23.75%) and Order Entry and Processing (22.50%), from the outline effective January 6, 2026.